Jesse thinks Gabriel greets Mary like John Wayne and that the compound word, “understand”, means you’re standing under the thing you want to know.

 [This is a place holder for when family leaves after New Years’s so I can spend time addressing Jesse’s ideology-protecting, sophomoric simplicities.]

Why did Matthew and Luke use the same word? And WHY DIDN'T THEY JUST USE THE WORD DAILY?!

Comments

  1. Just do it right now. Get it done.

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  2. Where is the artlcle you are critiquing?

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  3. Speaking of patience; written earlier to Jesse at his blog:


    1. “Justice was eternally part of God’s nature, but its relational expression began with creation.”

    I don’t you think you know what dormant means. I do t think you know that you just repeated the categorical mistake. I posited dormancy as your only position, given that you think God’s eternal justice is retributive.

    You’ve fallen into that categorical mistake both before, unknowingly, and now, immediately after!, obtusely thinking I was suggesting it.

    2. Love is eternal. Mercy is the outpouring of one time-bound quality of love: when there is wrongdoing by the other. And patience is yet another time-bound quality of love given to insufficient capacity of the other.

    Again, you’ve interjected time into eternity. Yet another categorical mistake.
    ___

    These are things you miss when you are too pretentious (1John 2:16 [καὶ ἡ ἀλαζονεία τοῦ βίοu”]; and pathetically anxious) to engage in dialogue with those who confront you.
    ___

    and

    1. Epiousion does not have a “more common” usage! One goes drastically and often wrong when one thinks a definition of a compound word is given by the definitions of its parts.

    Understand? “Understand”?

    That epiousion never occurs elsewhere in all of ancient Greek literature is exactly why the Church Fathers had difficulty in understanding what is meant.

    Hence, Jerome translates it differently btw Matthew and Luke. “Daily” (panem nostrum quotidianum) once; “supersubstantial” (panem nostrum supersubstantialem) once.

    Ousia and homoiusias was used to refer to the Divine before the time of Jesus by many kinds of writers, among them writers as diverse as Aristotle and Gnostics. For Aristotle, ousia is something’s being, essence, or substance, as opposed to its changing attributes.

    2. You clearly have not read up on the background, existing controversies, and hence the agenda of the Council at Nicea and its use of Origen and Athanasius’ use of the Ante-Nicene Fathers. I recommend you read up.

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  4. But where is the article???

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  5. Where are the words you want to critique? What are they? How can I find them?

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  6. Where has Feodor gone?

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  7. I'd like to know the same as the rest of these guys. Feodor is always so quick to let us know what is on his mind.

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  8. Where's this article you suggest Jesse has gone wrong. Every exchange between the two of you I've read clearly shows you're totally owned by him.

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  9. Marshal, it's this piece where Feodor got his asshole chewed a new one: https://rationalchristiandiscernment.blogspot.com/2025/12/from-participles-to-pretension-how-not.html

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  10. My responses to Jesse are in my most recent posts.

    David Riggs, any possible chance you could stop sniffing imaginary assholes in your dreams and rise up like an adult with a strong thought in your head to contribute? Or is your brain as fecal as your faiith?

    Same for you, Marshall. Except you love to refer to testicles. You don’t have the balls to bring here what you protect with cupped hands at your blog, where you cant stand allowing me to comment. But here, you’re free to share argued points. Just not your default, cowardice farts. You’re too gutless to try to engage. Or just too ignorant of the New Testament to start with.

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